Updated February 12th, 2025
The NAPOLCOM Exam is your gateway to joining the ranks of the Philippine National Police (PNP), but passing it requires preparation, strategy, and confidence. Whether you’re aiming to qualify as a Police Officer or seeking career advancement, mastering the exam is essential to proving your knowledge and readiness for the role.
This Practice Test for the PNP Entrance exam will take you through the different cognitive test sections and help you gain familiarity and confidence.
Shir, Civil Service and Police Assessments Expert at JobTestPrep
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Twice a year, the Philippines NAPOLCOM, the National Police Commission, administers Knowledge and Cognitive tests for its recruits and officers seeking promotions. The test is administered through either a computer or with a pen and pencil. Whether you are about to take the PNP entrance exam or the NAPOLCOM promotional exam, coming prepared is vital if you aim for a law enforcement career in the Philippines.
This NAPOLCOM entrance exam practice test includes sample questions from crucial sections of the actual test, giving you a solid starting point. For a deeper dive into test topics and much more practice tests, explore our NAPOLCOM Exam Prep.
Let's start with verbal reasoning questions. Here you will face Grammar and vocabulary questions, as well as reading comprehension, word sequences and analogies.
Jack felt so ecstatic after winning the championship that he jumped up and down with joy.
Which of the following is the meaning of "ecstatic" as used in the sentence above?
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The word "ecstatic" refers to an overwhelming feeling of happiness or joy. In the sentence, Jack's reaction to winning the championship—jumping up and down—indicates extreme excitement, which aligns with the meaning of "overjoyed."
After studying all night, Rachel was so fatigued that she could barely keep her eyes open during the exam.
Which of the following is the meaning of "fatigued" as used in the sentence above?
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"Fatigued" means extremely tired or exhausted. Since Rachel stayed up all night studying, it makes sense that she would feel tired and struggle to keep her eyes open during the exam.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question
Over the past 10 to 15 years, beekeepers have been reporting unusual weakening of bee numbers and colony losses, particularly in Western European countries including France, Belgium, Switzerland, Germany, the UK, the Netherlands, Italy and Spain. In North America, colony losses observed since 2005 have left the region with fewer kept bees than at any time in the past 50 years. American scientists have coined the term Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) to describe this phenomenon. CCD is often characterized by the rapid loss from a colony of its adult worker bee population.
In May 2012, as part of its strategy for tackling declining bee numbers, the European Commission allocated €3.3 million to support 17 Member States carrying out surveillance studies aimed at gathering further information on losses of honey bee colonies. Following these studies, the European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) scientists have identified a number of risks posed to bees by neonicotinoid chemicals used in pesticides. The EFSA has found that these pesticides have acute and chronic effects on bee colony survival and development.
Although the European Commission is adamantly pushing towards restricting the use of neonicotinoid chemicals for crops not attractive to bees and other pollinators, many farmers and crop experts argue that there is insufficient data to make such drastic restrictions. They argue that the report published by the EFSA specifically stated that in some cases it was ‘unable to finalize the assessments due to shortcomings in the available data’.
A solution to this dispute may be found when examining the general principles of risk management. Apparently, in cases of action being taken under the precautionary principle, the producer/manufacturer may be required to prove the absence of danger rather than waiting until hard evidence of the contrary has come to light.
*Adapted from BBC News
Which one of the following applies to EFSA research?
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The EFSA research is mentioned twice in the text:
(1) when it is introduced: ’European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) scientists have identified a number of risks posed to bees by neonicotinoid chemicals used in pesticides. The EFSA has found that these pesticides have acute and chronic effects on bee colony survival and development.’- The research identified risks posed by pesticides and found them to have harmful effects on bees.
(2) in relation to the farmer's protest: ‘They argue that the report published by the EFSA last January specifically stated that in some cases it was "unable to finalize the assessments due to shortcomings in the available data".‘- The farmers believe that the study provides insufficient data.
Therefore the correct statement is B. Note that statement C isn't correct since the farmers oppose the European Commission's decision to restrict the use of pesticides, not the EFSA research itself. Statement D isn't correct because scientists have identified the risks posed to bees by neonicotinoid chemicals, not the chemicals themselves.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question
A study, published in the journal of Psychological Science, examined data from a national survey that followed more than 5,000 UK households and 10,000 adults between 1991 and 2008 as they moved house around the country. They asked participants to report on their own psychological health during that time to estimate the ‘green space effect’.
Results of the study suggest that mental distress and life satisfaction are correlated with living in greener areas. This was true even after the researchers accounted for changes over time in participants' income, employment, marital status, physical health and housing type.
Dr. White, one of the study's researchers, compared the scale of the effects of living in a greener area to ‘big-hitting’ life events such as marriage: ”We've found that living in an urban area with relatively high levels of green space can have a significantly positive impact on wellbeing, roughly equal to a third of the impact of being married'. The effect was also found to be equivalent to a tenth of the impact of being employed, as opposed to unemployed. Even when stacked up against other factors that contribute to life satisfaction, living in a greener area had a significant effect.”
This research could be important for psychologists, public health officials and urban planners who are interested in learning about the effects that urbanisation and city planning can have on population health and wellbeing."
Beth Murphy, information manager at the mental health charity Mind, said: ”For people living busy lifestyles in densely populated areas, being able to get outdoors and access green space is a great way to escape the stresses of day-to-day life'. We believe this is food for thought for any policymaker involved in urban planning, or local authority developing its public health strategy.”
*Adapted from BBC News
What conclusion can be drawn from the passage?
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The question requires us to make inferences from the information given in the passage. In addition, it does not refer us to a specific section of the text. Therefore it is recommended to work with the statements themselves and locate them in the text (trying to confirm or refute them) instead of vice versa: Distracter (a): ‘Beth Murphy…said: "For people living busy lifestyles in densely populated areas, being able to get outdoors and access green space is a great way to escape the stresses of day-to-day life"'. Murphy does not indicate that people who live in densely populated areas have poor health. Distracter (b):‘Dr. White…compared the scale of the effects of living in a greener area to "big-hitting" life events such as marriage.’ Namely, marriage is considered to have a significant impact on people. Distracter (c):‘ ‘This was true even after the researchers accounted for changes over time in participants' income, employment, marital status, physical health and housing type.’ In other words, the positive impact of green spaces is not moderated by physical health. Distracter (d):‘ ‘…these kinds of comparisons are important for policymakers when trying to decide how to invest scarce public resources.’ The study itself, together with the words of Dr. White, gives us reason to infer that green spaces are not accessible to all people. That is the reason it is so important to prove their positive effects and to influence policymakers to invest more money in them.
Therefore, the statement that logically follows from the passage is: statement D.
Which of these sentences is written correctly?
1. There seems to be a lot of interest lately, in the field of digital watches
2. The death toll in Paris France has risen to seven people after an elderly lady was pulled from the rubble.
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The correct answer is D.
1.There seems to be a lot of interest lately in the field of digital watches.
•A comma is not needed after 'lately' as this is a complete sentence. Also, a period is needed at the end of the complete sentence.
2.The death toll in Paris, France has risen to seven people after an elderly lady was pulled from the rubble.
•A comma is needed between the names of a city and a country.
Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?
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The correct answer is (B).
A semicolon is used to separate two related independent clauses.
Answer (A) is incorrect because without punctuation, the two independent clauses create a run-on sentence.
Answers (C) and (D) are incorrect because using a comma to separate two independent clauses results in a comma-splice error.
With over 50 Verbal reasoning practice tests covering all test topics, our NAPOLCOM Exam prep will get you ready and confident for test day!
Next up, we’re diving into quantitative and numerical reasoning! Get ready to tackle math word problems, sharpen your basic quantitative skills, and crack number series questions. These sections test your problem-solving abilities—so let’s jump in and put your skills to the test!
Convert 0.601 to a fraction
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The correct answer is (E) – 601/1000.
0.601 is converted to a fraction using 1000 as a basis since there are 3 digits after the decimal point:
0.601 = 601/1000.
(2/3) x (6/8)
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The correct answer is (B) – 1/2.
In order to multiply two fractions, we need to first multiply the two numerators to form a new numerator and then multiply the two denominators, creating the new denominator. In this fashion, we find the new fraction.
2*6 is the new numerator
3*8 is the new denominator
We find that: (2*2*3)/(3*2*2*2)
Dividing both numerator and denominator by a factor of 12, will get us 1/2.
If eggs cost $4 per box (containing a dozen eggs), how much would it cost to buy 32 eggs?
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The correct answer is $12.
There are 12 eggs (=dozen) in each egg box. The number 32 does not divide in 12 which tell us we will have more than 32 eggs in total.
Purchasing 2 boxes will provide you with 24 eggs and 3 boxes will provide you with 36 eggs. Since you can only purchase the eggs in boxes that contain a dozen eggs, you will have to buy 3 boxes. Each box costs $4, thus: 3*$4 = $12.
An organic greenhouse grows Roses and Lilies in an 11:10 ratio in favour of the Roses. On Valentine's Day the owner of the greenhouse was overflowed with orders and sold out his entire stock of flowers. If the total amount of Lilies was 2,000 how many more Roses than Lilies were sold?
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The correct answer is (C) – 200.
In this question, we have both the ratio and an absolute value. Thus, once we calculate the value of a unit of ratio we can easily find the rest of the values.
Since the ratio between the Roses and Lilies is 11:10, we can consider the 2,000 Lilies as 10 units of ratio, and therefore, 2,000 Lilies/10 units = 200 Lilies per unit of ratio. The difference between the number of Roses and the number of Lilies is one unit: 11-10 = 1, which equals 200.
Get ready to ace the NAPOLCOM! Our expertly designed 150+ full-length practice tests cover all question types, so you're fully prepared for the real exam.
The final cognitive category focuses on logical reasoning, covering inductive and deductive verbal questions, along with non-verbal abstract reasoning. With a wide range of question types and difficulty levels, solid preparation is key to mastering this section. Let’s dive in and sharpen your reasoning skills!
Read the text and answer the following question
Burns are classified as first-, second-, or third-degree, depending on how severe they are and how deeply they penetrate the skin's surface.
First-Degree Burns (Superficial)
Superficial first-degree burns affect only the epidermis, or outer layer of skin. In most cases, superficial first-degree burns are caused by mild sunburns or flash burns. The burn site is red, painful, and dry, but it will have no blisters. Long-term tissue damage is rare and usually consists of an increase or decrease in the skin color. Pain usually lasts 48 to 72 hours and then subsides.
Healing occurs in 3-5 days, with the injured epithelium peeling away from the healthy skin.
Treatment to manage the pain may include cold compresses, lotion, and antibiotic ointments (acetaminophen or ibuprofen). However, for most first-degree burns medical attention is rarely necessary.
Second-degree burns can be classified as partial or full thickness:
Second-Degree Burns (Partial Thickness Burns)
Partial thickness burns involve the epidermis and the upper part of the dermis layer of skin. The burn site appears red, blistered, and may be swollen. It can also appear wet and is usually painful. This type of burn should heal in several weeks (10-21 days) without grafting, and scarring is usually minimal.
Second-Degree Burns (Full Thickness Burns)
Full thickness burns involve the destruction of the entire epidermis and most of the dermis (second layer of skin). The burn site can be red or white in appearance, and it will appear dry and be very painful. This type of burn should heal in several weeks (21-35 days) without grafting, and scarring is usually minimal.
Treatment depends on the severity of the burn and may include antibiotic ointments, daily cleaning of the wound, and dressing changes one or two times a day. Pain treatment is the same as for first-degree burns.
Third-Degree Burns
Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis and may even go into the subcutaneous tissue (muscle, bones, etc.). The burn site may appear dry, white, or charred. Third-degree burns are not painful due to the serious damage done to the nerves. Third-degree burns are incredibly dangerous as they can lead to shock and ultimately death.
Third-degree burns require immediate emergency medical attention. Burn recovery will require sterile environments and intravenous antibiotics or antibiotic creams as the possibility of infection is high. Tetanus is one such infection and that is why aa tetanus shot is given. Even small areas may take months to heal. Scarring is a certainty, and in almost all cases of third degree burns it is necessary for the victim to receive skin grafts.
A second-degree burn that does not cover more than 10 percent of the skin's surface can usually be treated in an outpatient setting. The same does not apply to third-degree burns.
A person is suffering from severe burns on his right foot. The doctor who treats him identifies his injuries as third-degree burns. What is necessarily true regarding the burns?
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The correct answer is B.
The extensive tissue damage caused by third-degree burns guarantees scarring.
Answer choice A is incorrect. This is the description of first-degree burns.
Answer choice C is incorrect. Third-degree burns don't cause pain due to the extensive damage to the nerves. It is second-degree full thickness burns that are described as very painful.
Answer choice D is incorrect. This is true only for first-degree burns. Third-degree burns take months to heal.
Officer Rose received a series of reports from witnesses who saw a woman selling drugs on the corner of Main and Crawford. The description of each suspect is as follows:
Report 1: female, White, late thirties, brown hair, 5’5”, 160 pounds, pink sweatpants, red shirt, gold earrings, jean jacket.
Report 2: female, White, 35, black hair, 5’4”, 150 pounds, sweatpants, blue shirt, jean jacket, sandals.
Report 3: female, White, mid - thirties, blonde hair, 5’6”, 155 pounds, blue jeans, red jacket, gold earrings, scarf.
On December 11, a fourth report is received regarding a woman selling drugs on Main Street. The description of the suspect is as follows:
Report 4: female, White, brown hair, 5’5”, 35 years old, 150 pounds, red sweatpants, blue jacket, running shoes.
Based on the description given above of the suspects in the first three reports, the suspect in report 4 should also be considered a suspect in report(s):
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Abstract Reasoning - Next in Series
Which block completes the following sequence:
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The correct answer is D.
The two black sections of the circle move around it clockwise in a different pattern: the section on the upper left side of the circle moves two sections each step. The second section (upper right side in the first frame) stays in the same spot for a step and then moves two sections in the next two steps.
When the two sections land on the same spot, they appear as one, such as in the third frame.
In the next frame of the sequence, the first section should appear on the upper right side of the circle, so answers (A), (B), and (E) can be ruled out. The second section should stay where it is, which leaves the answer (D).
Which of the following boxes should replace the question mark (?) to complete the pattern?
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The answer is D
The above series has two characteristics that change: The inside shape and the outside shape.
The pattern of the outside shapes is - circle, square, and triangle.
The pattern of the inside shapes is - square, triangle, and circle.
Thus, following this pattern, the answer is a square with a triangle inside.
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The NAPOLCOM (National Police Commission) exam is designed for individuals who want to join the Philippine National Police (PNP). It serves as an entry requirement to become a police officer, assessing a candidate’s knowledge, skills, and qualifications. The exam is also taken by those who seek promotion within the PNP. Passing the NAPOLCOM exam grants eligibility for appointment to the police force but does not automatically guarantee employment.
If you pass the NAPOLCOM exam, you will receive a NAPOLCOM Certificate of Eligibility, which qualifies you to apply for a position in the Philippine National Police (PNP). However, passing the exam does not guarantee automatic employment. You must still meet other PNP recruitment requirements, as listed in the Philippines National Police Clearance site.
To pass the NAPOLCOM exam, you must obtain a minimum rating of 70%. This applies to both the PNP Entrance Exam (for aspiring police officers) and the Promotional Exams (for those seeking higher ranks).
Each exam consists of different subject areas, such as general information, verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and law enforcement-related topics. Candidates must achieve an overall rating of at least 70% to be considered as having passed.
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